A 49-year-old obese white male with poorly controlled diabetes...

Question Answered step-by-step A 49-year-old obese white male with poorly controlled diabetes… A 49-year-old obese white male with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia presents to clinic for a regularly scheduled visit. He complains that his left and right legs are extremely red and painful. He denies constitutional symptoms. His vital signs are within normal limits. He has warm legs with circumferential erythema extending from the ankle to the mid-calves with 2+ pitting edema bilaterally with hemosiderin staining (brownish macular lesions) of the ankles. There is no lymphadenopathy. There are no open sores or minor trauma noted. His complete blood count with differential is within normal limits. You send him for Doppler studies that fail to reveal venous thrombosis. What is the most likely cause of the presenting symptoms?What is the pathophysiology of the disorder?What non-pharmacologic intervention would you recommend?ReferenceMcCance K.I & Heuther S.E (2019). Pathophysiology: the biologic basis for disease in adults and children (8th Ed.) Health Science Science Nursing NSG 5531 Share QuestionEmailCopy link Comments (0)