John is a 72-year-old male with long-standing hypertension, angina, and heart failure. He is aware that his obesity and lack of exercise contribute

Question Answered step-by-step -John is a 72-year-old male with long-standing hypertension,angina, and heart failure. He is aware that his obesity and lack of exercise contribute to his diagnoses. He takes aspirin daily but is starting to have gastric irritation. He asks if there are alternatives. He proudly reports that his cardiologist tells him he has “Class I angina risk.” Explain the rationale for using ASA in this patient. What are the alternatives, if any, to ASA therapy? Help clarify the use of enumerated scales for CV diseases such as angina. Does Class I angina equate to low risk? Health Science Science Nursing PHARMACOLOGY 676B Share QuestionEmailCopy link Comments (0)